After reading the second half of The Siege of Jerusalem, I noticed some rather large contrasts within the reading from this section to the first. The first contrast is the depictions of the Romans vs the Jews. It was posed as a question in a post last week, and I think it's an important aspect of the poem to point out. While the Jews are continuously dehumanized and portrayed as weak sub-human creatures through the violence in the poem, the Romans are repeatedly portrayed as valiant, strong, and "lion" like men. For example, "Than with a liouns lote he lifte up his eyen, to Titus tourneth anon, and hym the tale schewed. And as Sire Sabyn hadde seid, he hym sone granteth, with his brother and the burnes, as he hym blesse wolde" (1001-1004). A similar quote with a Roman exemplifying incredible strength both mentally and physically, "Sire Sabyn of Surrye, whyle the saute laste, Leyth a ladder to the wal and alofte clymyth, wendeth wyghtly theron -though hym wo happned- and up stondith for ston or for steel-ware" (1197-1200). While the Jews are portrayed as weak heathens throwing rocks and stones, the Romans are described with strength and incredible resistance to these "terrible" creatures.
Another contrast that I saw between the beginning and the end was in the resolution of the tale. While it's not completely at the end, the explanations for all the deaths, omens, and negative things that have happened to them, "And than the vilayns devysed hem and venguance hit helde, and wyten her wo the wronge that they wroghte whan they brutned in the burwe the byschup Seint Jame; noght wolde acounte hit for Crist, the care that they hadde" (1237-1240). I thought that this was a rather abrupt resolution for all of the "woe" that the people had experienced in this war. After all of the incredibly detailed scenes of violence and grotesque deaths, the poem quite suddenly just brings it back upon the people saying that it was their sins that created this violence. In the first section of the poem we saw violent images of Christ's deaths and then similar violent descriptions in the war scenes, thus creating a sort of parallel between the two, but then in this line the author suddenly states that their suffering is nothing compared to Christ's. We get these valiant images of the Romans, but then this bold contrast to even their suffering to that of Christ's. It seems as if there is almost a totem pole of "goodness" that is created in the poem--the Jews are on the bottom with what would appear to be the Romans on top (the valiant lions). But then, we are thrown this passage, we see that the Romans and their suffering and courage is actually nothing to that of Christ. The question that I would pose, then, is what do you think the literary purpose is for all of the violent imagery and then this sudden resolution basically stating that their suffering wasn't that bad? Were the grotesque and disturbing images in the war supposed to be meant as an example that no suffering is as great as Christ's? Or is this merely a coincidence that I am way over-reading into.....?